UPSC Civil Services Examination (Prelims) Indian Polity & Governance MCQ Questions

‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. ‘X’ explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. ‘Y’ pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(Indian Army Corps) — (Headquarters)
A. 3 Corps — Dimapur
B. 4 Corps — Tezpur
C. 14 Corps — Leh
D. 33 Corps — Srinagar

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?

1. Employment Policy Convention
2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

Select the answer using the code given below:

Consider the following pairs: Provision in the Constitution of India | Stated under I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services : The Directive Principles of State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India.
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

Select the answer using the code given below:

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow.
Passage
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, o r the JJ Act, 2015 allows for the possibility for trying adolescents above 16 as adults if they are accused of committing a heinous offence. A heinous offence i s one with a minimum punishment of seven years. Offences such as culpable homicide and causing death by negligence, which are common in drunken driving cases, are not heinous offences because they do not have a prescribed minimum punishment. The JJ Act, amended in 2021, now categorises an offence that has no minimum sentence, but has a maximum sentence of seven years or more as a serious offence which nonetheless, in the opinion of activists, does not merit the transfer of a case to the adult criminal justice system.

Which of the following conclusions is/are valid?

1. Only a serious offence as categorised by the revised JJ Act, justifies the transfer of a case to the adult judicial system.
2. The JJ Act, 2021, categorises an offence as a serious offence based on the maximum sentence it carries, rather than on the minimum sentence.

Select the answer using the code given below.

Consider the following pairs: State | Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after Raja Ram Mohan Roy and the State has two National Parks.
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

1. Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) — Function: To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies — Controlling Union Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) — Function: To investigate complex corporate frauds — Controlling Union Ministry: Ministry of Finance
3. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) — Function: To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy — Controlling Union Ministry: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension
   In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
Statement II: The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow.
Passage
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, o r the JJ Act, 2015 allows for the possibility for trying adolescents above 16 as adults if they are accused of committing a heinous offence. A heinous offence i s one with a minimum punishment of seven years. Offences such as culpable homicide and causing death by negligence, which are common in drunken driving cases, are not heinous offences because they do not have a prescribed minimum punishment. The JJ Act, amended in 2021, now categorises an offence that has no minimum sentence, but has a maximum sentence of seven years or more as a serious offence which nonetheless, in the opinion of activists, does not merit the transfer of a case to the adult criminal justice system.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. If an offence has no minimum prescribed punishment, it cannot be considered heinous as per the JJ Act, 2015.
2. As per the JJ Act, 2021, an offence for which there is a provision for a maximum sentence of seven years or more, but no minimum sentence, is to be considered a serious offence.

Select the answer using the code given below.

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Organization | Some of its functions | It works under I. Directorate of Enforcement | Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 | Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence | Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management | Carrying out big data analysis to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
   Select the answer using the code given below:

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
   Select the answer using the code given below:

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?